Elsewhere, Paul does not hesitate to emphasize discontinuity between pre-Christian norms and new Christian freedom in Christ (e.g., Rom. 4, 14; 1 Cor. 8; the book of Galatians). So if homosexual unions are now allowed, why would Paul not even mention the fact? In Romans 1, Paul’s enumeration of Gentile sins also includes idolatry (see vv. 23, 25), covetousness, malice, and so on (see vv. 29–31). Would these also be acceptable in Christian life?
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